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- This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by Stephen Widberg.
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- June 17, 2020 at 10:05 pm #574093
Hi Chris.
Trust you are keeping well.
Please can you be so kind (as usual) to explain the solution to this
“On 1 April 20X7, Pauline sold an item of plant to Sonia at its agreed fair value of $5 million. Its carrying amount prior to the sale was $4 million. The estimated remaining life of the plant at the date of sale was five years.”
Pauline is the parent entity while Sonia is the subsidiary. The year end is 31 March 20X8.
My understanding of this is that a PURP will arise in Pauline’s books so the Group’s retained earning will increase by $1 million. Being an intra-group sale of a PPE, the PPE value will increase by same amount.
However I also think that, Pauline would have taken the PPE out of its books at $4 million and recognised the profit accordingly. Sonia would have recorded the PPE in its books at $5 million. So the depreciation for the year in Sonia’s books would have been $1m meaning an additional depreciation of $200,000 as depreciation prior to sale would have been $800,000.
The net effect of this would increase the Group PPE by $800,000.
However, the solution in the text was;
The carrying amount of the PPE is $4m ($5m – ($5m/5 years)). If no group transfer had happened, then the carrying amount would have been $3.2m ($4m – ($4m/5 years). PPE must therefore be reduced by $800,000 ($4m – $3.2m). Pauline is the seller so the profit impact must be adjusted against Pauline’s retained earnings. The adjusting entry is:
Dr Retained earnings
Cr PPEThank you in advance!
‘Wande.
June 18, 2020 at 2:07 pm #574178I would always do what they have in the Kaplan book – compare existing CA with CA as if no transfer had taken place, and adjust against RE of seller.
I can’t get my head round why you want to increase the PPE – with PUPs, its’ always asset down and profit down
Mercifully, unlikely to see PUPs in SBR in the current syllabus.
June 18, 2020 at 7:44 pm #574219Thanks Stephen!
Had another look at it vis-a-vis your comment. Now I get it. The asset remains within the Group regardless so the depreciation should be accounted for as though the transfer did not take place.
My initial thought was to treat it like I would if it were to be a sale of inventory.
‘Wande.
June 19, 2020 at 5:57 pm #574287My pleasure
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