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Question 7 Northern page number 172

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Question 7 Northern page number 172

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 13 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • November 30, 2012 at 10:48 am #55959
    Saline
    Participant
    • Topics: 19
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆

    Can you please tell why is it done like this (.35 X 1/5MVg).

    It could be (.35 X 1/4 MVug) or (.35 X 1/5MVug) or (.35 X 1/5 MVug) on page #172. If it should be any of the above or if what you did is correct.
    Please elaborate whatever is the answer and why it should be.

    Thanks.

    December 1, 2012 at 2:55 pm #109264
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54798
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Page 172 of which book?

    December 1, 2012 at 10:30 pm #109265
    Saline
    Participant
    • Topics: 19
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆

    of open tuition notes

    December 2, 2012 at 5:48 pm #109266
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54798
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I am sorry – I should have realised that you meant the OpenTuition notes 🙁

    The question says that the debt/equity ratio is 1:4. So….if the equity is (for example) 100, then the debt will be 25 (1/4 x 100).
    So….the total value of the company – equity + debt – will be 125.

    So the ratio of debt to total market value will be 25 / 125 = 1/5.

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