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Profit Maximisation

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA APM Exams › Profit Maximisation

  • This topic has 7 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 12 years ago by Ken Garrett.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • November 8, 2012 at 8:07 am #55118
    samiirah
    Member
    • Topics: 22
    • Replies: 20
    • ☆

    Hello

    I am having a problem with ques 4.June 2008 (MR resort),
    I am unable to calculate the profit maximisation fee, the answer looks so complicated, i cant figure out the formuala used.
    Please explain me in detail how to calculate the fee and also advise to which chapter this question relate.

    November 9, 2012 at 7:05 pm #106804
    Ken Garrett
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 10589
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    June 08 Q4 is called “The Childrens Toy Company (CTC)”.

    Not sure what question you are referring to.

    November 10, 2012 at 3:20 pm #106805
    samiirah
    Member
    • Topics: 22
    • Replies: 20
    • ☆

    sorry its question June 2009 no 4, i am unable to calculate the profit maximisation and i fail to understand the formulae use in the BPP exam kit to arrive at the answer. grateful if you could explain in detail how to calculate the profit maximisation.thanks

    November 11, 2012 at 9:07 am #106806
    Ken Garrett
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 10589
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    This is a pricing question and the rule for profit maximisation is to find where marginal cost (MC) = marginal revenue (MR).

    Using a profit-maximising algebraic approach where P = a – bQ [this is the standard starting point linking quantity of rooms sold and the price, P]

    Then 400 = P – 0•25 x 1,440

    Where a = 10/40 = 0•25 (a change of 40 people for a change of price of $10) and double occupancy = 75% x 2,400 = 1,800 x 80% = 1,440

    Hence P = 400 + (0•25 x 1,440) = $760

    Therefore P = 760 – 0•25Q

    Total revenue = P x Q, so

    TR = 760Q – 0•25Q2

    MR = 760 – 0•5Q [MR = marginal revenue; it seems to me that this step, from TR to MR is beyond your syllabus now, so Don’t worry about it]

    MC = 200 (2 persons x $100).

    In order to achieve maximum profit then MR = MC

    Therefore 760 – 0•5Q = 200
    And Q = (760 – 200)/0•5 = 1,120 units

    Therefore the selling price per double room at the profit-maximising level (P):
    = 760 – 0•25 x 1,120
    = 760 – 280
    = $480

    November 11, 2012 at 12:43 pm #106807
    samiirah
    Member
    • Topics: 22
    • Replies: 20
    • ☆

    THANK YOU SO MUCH.It is clear now. i dont need to worry about it then if it is not in syllabus

    December 2, 2012 at 10:57 am #106808
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    hey my name is mishaal.i have a small question about this profit max approach p = a – bx..
    .i know p is the price at which profit will be maximised .x is quantity demanded..b is change in price with change in demand..i have doubt about ‘a’ can u plz tell???

    December 2, 2012 at 11:18 am #106809
    angryhamtaro
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 162
    • ☆☆

    @samiirah, woah, woah, don’t assume that!

    December 2, 2012 at 5:07 pm #106810
    Ken Garrett
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 10589
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    @ mishaaljavaid, a would be the price at which nothing would be demanded (because it is so high).

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