How is it that in the ACCA model answer, they considered the PV of Investment and Returns with 4.5% and also how come in calcualtion the MIRR, they do not take into consideration the cost of capital of 12.5%? Please assist. Thanks
I think it should be at 12.5%, the WACC. The rationale is that receipts can be invested at this rate, rather than just being put on deposit at 4.5%. You might like to send a question to ACCA about it.