Hi John, just a quick question. In your lecture for example 2 where Mrs x owned 1200 shares, you asked us to add a part (e) what percentage should be taken up to be no change in the cash balance?
You showed us a detailed calculation (which I understood) and the answer was 20%.
My question – was it just co-incidence, or could we not just take the Value of rights ($1.50) and divide by the Ex rights MV ($7.50)