Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Washi Sep 2018
- This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by John Moffat.
- AuthorPosts
- September 3, 2019 at 3:29 pm #544513
Hi again John!
The question 1 (Washi) in September 2018 exam.
Could you please explain where am i wrong in the following ?Situation – We are in Japan (JPY). We receive ARD and need to convert them into JPY for NPV calculation.
1 step – We receive ARD and convert them into EUR – so we use the higher rate of 95.6 ARD/EUR (because we pay more ARD to bank for 1 EUR).
2 step – We convert our EUR into JPY – here we use lower rate of 129.2 JPY/1 EUR because bank will give us less JPY for 1 EUR, leaving spread as its fee for conversion.
3 step – Deriving our spot rate – From steps 1 and 2 above we can derive the spot rate we will use in our calculation of NPV:
It is JPY/ARD (129.2/95.6) = 1.3515 or (reverse) ARD/JPY (95.6/129.2) = 0.74.But why examiner use 0.70 in the answer instead of 0.74? Where am i wrong?
Nick
September 4, 2019 at 12:00 pm #544686I assume that you are referring to appendix 2
As far as the receipts are concerned, they are selling ARD and the examiner should have used 0.74.
As far as the payment at time 0 is concerned, they are buying ARD and therefore he is corrected to have used 0.70. - AuthorPosts
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