Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Investment appraisal discouted cash flow techniques
- This topic has 2 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 12 years ago by John Moffat.
- AuthorPosts
- September 11, 2012 at 8:15 pm #54410
Dear Tutor
i need help on the formula F= P(1+r)n
Test your understanding 1 in chapter 3
Q. you have $5000 to invest now for six years at an interest rate of 5% pa.applying the formula F= P(1+r)n
F=$5000 (1+0.05)6
=$5000x 1.3401
= $6700Thats the answer in the text book for test you understanding question 1.
What i dont understand is how do you get F=$5000 (1+0.05)6
=$5000x 1.3401i get $5000x 6.3????
September 11, 2012 at 8:32 pm #104996Hi there –
I have just done this question tonight too 🙂Ok lets see if I can help:
breaking it down:
5000 x (1+0.05) to the power 6:
1.05 to power 6 is 1.34 x 5000 = 6700.47
(Effectively it is 1.05 x 1.05 x 1.05 x 1.05 x 1.05 x 1.05 – but we wont have time to do that in the exam!)
September 12, 2012 at 4:44 pm #104997marky 123 is correct. You have misread the formula (or it is typed badly in your book). It is not P(1+r)n, it is P(1+r)^n (i.e. to the power n)
Also, you really should have a scientific calculator for this exam, in which case something to the power n is easy.
However, even without a scientific calculator it can be quick.
Instead of doing 1.05 x 1.05 x 1.05 etc., with most calculators all you need to is:enter 1.05, then hit the ‘x’ key twice, then hit the ‘=’ key 5 times 🙂
(only 5 times – the first time is ^2, the second time is ^3, and so on) - AuthorPosts
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.