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Investment appraisal discouted cash flow techniques

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Investment appraisal discouted cash flow techniques

  • This topic has 2 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 12 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • September 11, 2012 at 8:15 pm #54410
    majid1984
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 0
    • ☆

    Dear Tutor

    i need help on the formula F= P(1+r)n

    Test your understanding 1 in chapter 3
    Q. you have $5000 to invest now for six years at an interest rate of 5% pa.

    applying the formula F= P(1+r)n
    F=$5000 (1+0.05)6
    =$5000x 1.3401
    = $6700

    Thats the answer in the text book for test you understanding question 1.

    What i dont understand is how do you get F=$5000 (1+0.05)6
    =$5000x 1.3401

    i get $5000x 6.3????

    September 11, 2012 at 8:32 pm #104996
    marky123
    Member
    • Topics: 46
    • Replies: 193
    • ☆☆☆

    Hi there –
    I have just done this question tonight too 🙂

    Ok lets see if I can help:

    breaking it down:

    5000 x (1+0.05) to the power 6:

    1.05 to power 6 is 1.34 x 5000 = 6700.47

    (Effectively it is 1.05 x 1.05 x 1.05 x 1.05 x 1.05 x 1.05 – but we wont have time to do that in the exam!)

    September 12, 2012 at 4:44 pm #104997
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    @majid1984:

    marky 123 is correct. You have misread the formula (or it is typed badly in your book). It is not P(1+r)n, it is P(1+r)^n (i.e. to the power n)

    Also, you really should have a scientific calculator for this exam, in which case something to the power n is easy.
    However, even without a scientific calculator it can be quick.
    Instead of doing 1.05 x 1.05 x 1.05 etc., with most calculators all you need to is:

    enter 1.05, then hit the ‘x’ key twice, then hit the ‘=’ key 5 times 🙂
    (only 5 times – the first time is ^2, the second time is ^3, and so on)

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