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Question in revision kit p5

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA APM Advanced Performance Management Forums › Question in revision kit p5

  • This topic has 4 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 12 years ago by angryhamtaro.
Viewing 5 posts - 1 through 5 (of 5 total)
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  • August 26, 2012 at 9:46 am #54250
    ddnguyen
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 47
    • ☆☆

    Does anybody practise the revision kit p5 2012,

    I have a concern in question 3 ( HEG – APM 12/07), i can’t understand why they calculate sales for part a is = 625m x 4% x 2.4$ x 3/4=

    the concern is 3/4 i try to understand but i can not, sbd help me?

    thanks a lot

    August 26, 2012 at 11:19 am #104687
    angryhamtaro
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 162
    • ☆☆

    The 33 1/3 (or 4/3) is a markup required by SFG from HSC’s sandwiches. To reverse it, you change it into an inverse to 3/4 of $2.40 to know the price that HSC is selling. That makes it $1.80 per sandwich, or $0.60 profit or a 33.33% mark-up.

    August 26, 2012 at 2:11 pm #104688
    ddnguyen
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 47
    • ☆☆

    Hi angry,

    but 2.4 is selling price, the calculation is for sales……
    why here we calculate sales, we have to convert into 1.8 because 1.8 is cost

    could u explain more?

    thanks

    August 26, 2012 at 2:13 pm #104689
    ddnguyen
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 47
    • ☆☆

    Ah i saw the light,

    thnaks alot

    August 26, 2012 at 2:23 pm #104690
    angryhamtaro
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 162
    • ☆☆

    Glad you are enlightened. 😀

    It’s a simple concept of target costing by working backwards from the selling price to the cost.

    You can also try finding a similar question with a company called Great Western Cake Company (GWCC) from June 2006, for you to further appreciate the target costing concept.

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