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Foreign exchange risk management

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Foreign exchange risk management

  • This topic has 4 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 5 posts - 1 through 5 (of 5 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • August 27, 2019 at 10:34 pm #541747
    kennigara
    Participant
    • Topics: 193
    • Replies: 250
    • ☆☆☆

    Hi Dear Tutor, I watched your lecture and I am confused by the example 2.

    The amount owed by jimjam is 240000 R $.

    From my point of view, R$;s exchange rate is increased based on prior overall amount therefore its current exchange rate is 9.2530 because otherwise there is no way multiplying overall $ currency with its $ exchange rate.

    August 28, 2019 at 12:08 pm #543519
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54835
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I do not understand what you mean by “R$’s exchange rate is increased based on prior overall amount”. What prior overall amount??

    The exchange rate is given as IR/R$ 8.6380 – 9.2530.

    Therefore 1R$ is equal to 8.6380 or 9.2530 IR’s depending on which way we are converting. Here we are buying R$’s and so we convert at 9.2530. If we were selling R$’s then we would convert at 8.6380.

    August 28, 2019 at 12:46 pm #543536
    kennigara
    Participant
    • Topics: 193
    • Replies: 250
    • ☆☆☆

    Now understood my tutor, I just thought that

    August 28, 2019 at 12:48 pm #543537
    kennigara
    Participant
    • Topics: 193
    • Replies: 250
    • ☆☆☆

    I just thought that IR/R$ 8.6380 – 9.2530 8.6380 IR equal to 9.2530 R$.Now understood

    August 28, 2019 at 4:58 pm #543587
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54835
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 5 posts - 1 through 5 (of 5 total)
  • The topic ‘Foreign exchange risk management’ is closed to new replies.

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