- This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by .
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Interactive BPP books for June 2026 exams, recommended by OpenTuition.
Get discount code >>
Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › BPP kit Q296 Highveldt
Please help me with this question.
Note (iv): Development co(dev cost) => Why do we have these two below adjustments?
Write off dev cost incurred to RE (50m-18m) = (32m)
Write back the amortisation of dev cost to RE = 10m
Thanks,
Hi,
Apologies for the later than usual response.
The key is that the parent has deemed the subsidiary to have not met the IAS 38 criteria for development. As the subsidiary has capitalised and amortised the expenditure, then we need to reverse the entries made by the subsidiary.
The cost of $50 million was capitalised, so this now needs to be expensed, hence the reduction to retained earnings but the $18 million relates to the total of $50 million , which had been capitalised at the acquistion date. The difference of $32 million is the adjustment for the post acquistion period. . The amortisation of $10 million was charged through profit or loss, hence this needs to be removed from profit or loss and is therefore added back to retained earnings.
It is the trickiest adjustment to the entire question so don’t get too hung up on it, and focus on getting the remainder of the questions correct.
Thanks
