Sir in calculating free cashflow if department b – ndedge co Why are we decducting depreciation from EBIT instead of adding ? Is it coz it’s given in the question it can be assumed that tax allowable depre is the same as investment needed to maintain operations ?
Although the depreciation itself is not a cash flow, the same amount is needed to maintain operations and this is a cash flow.
It is something that the current examiner always assumes, even if it is not stated in the question, as I explain in my free lectures on investment appraisal.