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Accounting standards & Inventory

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FA Financial Accounting Forums › Accounting standards & Inventory

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by vickyxxi.
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • December 21, 2018 at 11:38 am #492427
    vickyxxi
    Participant
    • Topics: 18
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆

    1) International accounting standards are effective only if adopted by national regulatory bodies. Is this true or false? Why?
    _______________________________________________________

    These questions’ answes below are FALSE but I don’t understand.

    2a) When valuing work in progress, materials costs, labour costs and variable and fixed production overheads must be included.

    b) Inventory items can be valued using either first in, first out (FIFO) or weighted average cost.

    c) An entity’s financial statements must disclose the accounting policies used in measuring inventories.

    ____________________________________________________________

    3) The inventory value on this date was $38,950. During the period from 30 June 20X6 to 7 July 20X6, the following took place:

    Sales : $6,500
    Purchases: $4,250
    The mark up is 25% on cost.

    What is the inventory valuation at 30 June 20X6?

    December 21, 2018 at 2:24 pm #492439
    Kim Smith
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 134
    • Replies: 8304
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    1) I would say this is true because they wouldn’t be international if they weren’t adopted.
    2) Where are you seeing these as false? In the 2018 edition of the Kaplan Kit the Q asks which of 4 statements are correct – the other statement is “(1) Inventory should be value at the lower of cost, NRV and replacement cost”. The answer states that only (1) is incorrect. The three statements you have given are correct. Perhaps you are looking at an old edition with an error that has since been corrected.
    3) You don’t say on what date the inventory value was $38,950 – but I assume 7 July 20X6. So what you have to do is work “backwards” to the year-end valuation, i.e.
    Y/e value – sales (at cost) + purchases = $38,950
    Therefore, Y/e value = $38,950 + sales (at cost) – purchases
    You’re given the amount of purchases so the only tricky bit is working out the cost of the $6,500 sales. As the mark-up on cost was 25%, the cost must have been 100/125 x $6,500 = $5,200
    So the answer is y/e value = $38,950 + $5,200 – $4,250 = $39,900

    December 22, 2018 at 7:14 am #492469
    vickyxxi
    Participant
    • Topics: 18
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆

    Thank you so much for the explanation. For the second question, I was wondering why my answers are incorrect perhaps my edition (1 September 2018 – 31 August 2019) is faulty.

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