Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › March/June 2016 Lirio Co
- This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by John Moffat.
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- December 5, 2018 at 3:41 pm #487613
Dear John,
Lirio Co, estimate of value if large project is undertaken =
$0·0595 x 1·12–1 + $0·0595 x 1·12–2 + $0·3100 x 1·12–3 + [$0·3100 x 1·07/(0·12 – 0·07)] x 1·12–3 = $5·04 per share or $403 million market capitalisationCan you please advise where I can find notes/lectures on the above calculation? Or can you brief me on why this formula reminds me of bond valuation and the yield to maturity calculation?
Thanks!
December 5, 2018 at 4:20 pm #487635The value is simply the present value of the future dividends (0.0595 for two years and then 0.31 thereafter) discount at 12%.
I don’t know why the examiner writes the discount factors as 1.12^(-1) etc (which is the same as 1/1.12) instead of using the tables, but that makes no difference.
From the fourth year onwards, we use the normal dividend valuation formula, but because it starts in 4 years instead of in 1 year (which is 3 years later), we need to discount the answer for 3 years to get the PV ‘now’.
This is standard discounting and I can’t remember which lecture it is in (and it is in the FM (was F9) lectures as well in the lectures on the valuation of securities).
December 5, 2018 at 4:43 pm #487658Thank you, sir! I can now liken it to example one of chapter 16 but instead of valuing the firm based on cash flows we are valuing based on dividends.
December 6, 2018 at 7:09 am #487825Yes – you can 🙂
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