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BPP kit Q 40 Impex

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › BPP kit Q 40 Impex

  • This topic has 9 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 14 years ago by jewel.
Viewing 10 posts - 1 through 10 (of 10 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 29, 2011 at 5:40 pm #48759
    jewel
    Member
    • Topics: 11
    • Replies: 38
    • ☆

    Hi,

    Could you please tell me how the standard deviation is calculated in the question? For instance on page 191 we have:
    Equity market value 5775,4 and beta 0.98. How do you get ?S=?m*? of 7.84%
    same with debt and then total:
    total market value 8684,3 , beta 0.6936, how do you get ?S=?m*? of 5.5488%

    Appreciate your help.

    May 31, 2011 at 11:30 am #82655
    jewel
    Member
    • Topics: 11
    • Replies: 38
    • ☆

    I figured out the ?S=?m*?, there was 8% market risk in the question, i didn´t notice it before.

    I have however other question: when we calculate the geared value of Elfix company, why do we only add the interest part of debt market value (139.643m) to the DT part of the equation V = U+ DT ? why we don´t use the total market value of debt of 218.603 – to have V = 514.972 + 218.603 * 0.3 ?

    Many thanks!

    June 2, 2011 at 3:13 pm #82656
    skybei1987
    Member
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    i also cant understand why the answer show stabdard deviation of shares for Elfix. how they get 8.272. i know the are unlisted therefore might be more risk but how they get the figure?

    June 2, 2011 at 3:18 pm #82657
    skybei1987
    Member
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    For your question on why only interest part is added to DT is because payment of interest is tax deductible but not payment of principle.

    June 2, 2011 at 3:21 pm #82658
    skybei1987
    Member
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    this is the case for redeemable debt. For the case of irredeemable debt the PV of cashflow to infinity amounted to using the whole figure cos no principle is paid as it will not be redeemed

    June 2, 2011 at 7:59 pm #82659
    jewel
    Member
    • Topics: 11
    • Replies: 38
    • ☆

    thanks a lot skybei1987.
    regading your question: maybe it´s BPP error. The “should be” answer i take it as beta * market risk.

    June 6, 2011 at 11:23 am #82660
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The beta of a share measures its risk relative to that of the market.
    So….if beta is 0.98 it means the risk is 98% of the risk of the market (which is 8% here).

    June 6, 2011 at 1:35 pm #82661
    jewel
    Member
    • Topics: 11
    • Replies: 38
    • ☆

    The figure of equity in Effix should be then 0.9784 * 8% = 7.8272 % , right?
    So, BPP´s 8.272% is an error?

    June 6, 2011 at 2:57 pm #82662
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes – BPP have made a mistake. The risk of the equity in Elfix should be 7.8272%
    (This also means that their total risk figure (5.8648%) is also wrong. They have calculated it by taking the weighted average of the equity and debt risks – weighting by market values. This is fine, but because the equity risk figure is wrong, so is their total risk. It should be 5.5946. You can get the same figure by multiplying 8% (market risk) by the total Beta of 0.6993.

    June 6, 2011 at 3:45 pm #82663
    jewel
    Member
    • Topics: 11
    • Replies: 38
    • ☆

    many thanks John

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