Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › question 4 past exam jun2008 Sc CO Npv calucaltion
- This topic has 5 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by John Moffat.
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- November 30, 2010 at 4:11 pm #46434
in the question we are gevin tax rat 30% and in the answar sheet it didnt take the rat 30 % why we have to add capital allwance and then deducted when we have to do that hence other question for Dec 2008 question ,three ( Rupab ) part b they take 25% as capital allwance .
please help
December 2, 2010 at 3:22 pm #72169AnonymousInactive- Topics: 1
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Salam al likum Alraymi,
Your question is not very well phrased and I can only hazard a guess at what you are trying to ask me!
(1) The examiners solution does use a tax rate of 30%
(2) You do not have to treat the Capital Allowances exactly the same way as the examiner has done. .. You could have chosen to deduct the Tax Relief on the Capital Allowances from the TAX PAYABLE in your “Table of Operating Cash Flows” and you will arrive at the SAME NET tax payable.Your NPV figure of $91,154 will still work out the same as the examiners, bUT you will have only shown ONE line of capital allowances in your answer and not two lines, as the examiner has done.
Hope this helps, Kevin
October 23, 2015 at 10:56 pm #278638AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Hi, I also have a question regarding SC Co from June 2008.
Working capital is recovered in last 2 years. Since its not a rule (normally it should be recovered within last year of project) something must have been mentioned in the body of the question and I just don’t see anything pointing to it…
Thanks !
October 24, 2015 at 8:30 am #278683The question says that the working capital need to be 7% of the sales revenue for that year.
In year 1, the revenue is 728,000. So the working capital at the start of that year (time 0) must be 7% x 728,000 = 50,960
In year 2 the revenue is 1146390. So the working capital at the start of that year (time 1) must be 7% x 1146390 = 80,247. However they already have 50960, so the extra outflow needed at time 1 = 80247 – 50960 = 29287
In year 3, the revenue is 1687500. So the working capital at the start of that year (time 2) must be 7% x 1687500 = 118125. However they already have 80247 in total, so the extra outflow needed at time 2 = 118125 – 80247 = 37878
In year 4, the revenue is 842400. So the working capital at the start of that year (time 3) must be 7% x 842400 = 58968. However they already have 118125 in total. So there is an inflow at time 3 of 118125 – 58968 = 59157.
At time 4, the project finishes and so the remaining working capital of 58968 is recovered.
October 24, 2015 at 9:17 am #278698AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Many thanks for your prompt and comprehensive answer, now after that it seems obvious but it didn’t before!
I’ve been listening to your superb lectures for many years and passing successfully exams one by one, but it was my first post on this forum !
Best RegardsAgnes
October 24, 2015 at 1:06 pm #278718I am please it helped you 🙂
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