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Spot rates

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Spot rates

  • This topic has 6 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 14 years ago by Anonymous.
Viewing 7 posts - 1 through 7 (of 7 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • November 27, 2010 at 4:17 pm #46296
    salu007
    Member
    • Topics: 58
    • Replies: 32
    • ☆☆

    Dear sir,

    i ma not able to understand which rate to use when we are two spot or forward rates and when to multiply and divide.it would be great help if you could help

    November 28, 2010 at 12:18 am #71816
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 87
    • ☆☆

    HI,

    Here are some points ESSENTIAL to understanding forex fundamentals:

    Transaction Risk / Exposure

    Definition… arises when you have short-term assets or liabilities denominated in a foreign currency (i.e. Debtors and/or Creditors).

    Therefore, it arises from Importing/Exporting …on credit in the foreign currency!

    Foreign Exchange Markets

    Spot Market (Rates):
    Generally, two rates are quoted – the ‘buy’ and ‘sell’ rates. Buy and Sell currencies for immediate delivery.

    Forward Market (Rates):
    In the Exam these are often quoted as an adjustment to the spot rate i.e. as a ‘discount’ or as a ‘premium’

    Similarly, two interest rates are usually quoted – the Deposit rate and the Lending rate

    Key Rules In Fx Arithmetic:

    • Add Discount; Subtract premium (Be Careful with Decimal Points!)
    • For the Exam – just choose the rate that leaves you “
    WORSE-OFF” and you can’t go wrong!

    Take example 3, Chapter 22 in the OT Lecture Notes.

    Before starting your answer, ALWAYS ask yourself 3 questions:
    (1) Is the exposure on a DEBTOR or CREDITOR?
    (2) Will I be DIVIDING or MULTIPLYING?
    (3) Which RATE will leave me WORSE OFF?

    So, in the case of example 3 we have:
    (1) a CREDITOR…. = to $200,000
    (2) to convert we will be DIVIDING by the $ to get £’s
    (3) if we are dividing then which of the two rates will leave us WORSE OFF? (i.e in the case of a creditor which rate will cost us more?).

    Answer … the lower rate, i.e 1.4910 (= to £134,138)

    Note: If you had divided by the higher rate (1.4970) then the cost to you in £’s will have been less than £134,138

    So the rule is, whether the exposure is a DEBTOR or CREDITOR, always select the rate that leaves you worse off and you can never go wrong!

    Note: if you have a DEBTOR you will be worse off when you receive LESS in the home currency.

    If you are a CREDITOR you will be WORSE OFF when you have to PAY MORE in the home currency.

    Practice this fundamental logic and you’ll soon get the hang of it.

    Good luck, Kevin

    November 28, 2010 at 11:43 am #71817
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    Hi I am Tanooja and doing the F9 paper.
    As I am having problems to download the F9 Mock exam paper can anybody mail me the Dec 2010 Mock exam for F9 on the mail address pahladi@hotmail.com
    Thanks & Regards

    November 29, 2010 at 5:06 pm #71818
    salu007
    Member
    • Topics: 58
    • Replies: 32
    • ☆☆

    Appreciate your help sir.it will definitely help me.CHEERS!!!!!

    November 29, 2010 at 11:28 pm #71819
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 87
    • ☆☆

    HI Salu, you are very welcome.

    Good luck with the exam, Kevin

    November 30, 2010 at 5:19 pm #71820
    alryami2009
    Member
    • Topics: 53
    • Replies: 36
    • ☆☆

    dear kevin if we said these rule to ( caluclat the second currency we have to divided first currency by second ( spot rate ) and to calculat the first curenct we have to multiply first by second curency in the spot rat . if we are debitor we have then to bring money to bank then we have to choes the highest in the spot rat sell ( offer and if we have to make payments then we will select the lowest buy rate .

    is that true??

    December 2, 2010 at 4:23 pm #71821
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 87
    • ☆☆

    Ke-fal-hal,

    Alryami, I am afraid I do not agree with you here. The rules you are suggesting will not work for all possible scenarios. For example if your Debtor is in £’s and you are based in the US … what then ? …. your rules lead to the WRONG answer!

    The transaction risk rules for conversion which I have outlined above NEVER FAIL and will give you the correct answer for ALL conceivable scenarios.

    Regards, Kevin

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