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MikeLittle.
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- May 26, 2018 at 4:49 pm #454124
H acquired an 80%! holding in S on 1 April 2006. From 1/4/2006 to 31/12/2006, S sold goods for $4.3m at mark up of 10% to H. H’s inventory at 31/12/2006 included $2.2m of such inventory. The SOPL for each company for the year to 31/12/2006 showed the following in respect of cost of sales.
H $14.7m
S $11.6m.What is the cost sale figure to be shown in the CSoPL for the yr ended 31/12/2006
Purp 10/110* 2.2m = $0.2m
Cost of sales = 14.7+ 11.6- 4.3m + purp 0.2m= 19.3mBut Kaplan solu:
Cost of sales 14.7 + 11.6m (9/12* 14.7) – 4.3m + 0.2m = $19.3m
Was time apportioned necessary? Since I still arrive at same figure ?
May 26, 2018 at 4:54 pm #454125Ignore my working pls I made error
May 26, 2018 at 4:57 pm #454126I just needed to know if the purp was correct because sales was $4.3m at mark up 10% of which $2.2m was included at year end .
May 26, 2018 at 5:12 pm #45413010% mark up, $2,200 inventory at year end? Profit element / mark-up element is 10/110 8 $2,200 = $200
OK?
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