Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Qs39 hav co in bpp /exam 6/2013
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John Moffat.
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- May 24, 2018 at 5:14 pm #453787
I have so much confusion to understand logic behind the calculations based on average capital employed area ..though I understand the numbers but don’t understand ..why ?
Why are we doing excess annual premium ..what it mean ?..then post tax calculation for excess premium …later pv in perpetuity I understand it from s requirement ..
In totallity is there a specific formula for Maximum premium ?can u please simplify concept
Also maximum premium on p/e ratio ..the numbers are fine ..but how we start and how we end up including what components ..like first they calculate strand p/ e ratio ..then post tax profit for both co…then current value ..I m mixed up with logics in here
Need your help sir
May 24, 2018 at 5:37 pm #453803There is no formula to learn – it is simply following the instructions in the question.
The question says that the premium should be based on the PV of the excess annual earnings over the average capital employed.
The answer is simply following the instructions given in the question!!
Did you attempt the question before looking at the answer? That is the only way to benefit from using the revision kit 🙂
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