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Business Valuation

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Business Valuation

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • April 10, 2018 at 6:49 pm #446020
    mjibola
    Participant
    • Topics: 131
    • Replies: 135
    • ☆☆☆

    In the example of the technical article titled Business Valuations on the ACCA website, I don’t understand how the examiner calculated the 12% DCF for the 2018 perpetuity to get 7.067.

    I thought we look for the perpetuity 1/0.12 and then deduct the first four years annuity from the figure.

    Can you please explain?

    April 11, 2018 at 7:52 am #446101
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54733
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    What you have written would be correct if the 314 were to remain constant. However it id inflating at 3% per annum and therefore we need to use the growth formula from the formula sheet (usually we use apply it to dividends, but it is used for discounting any inflating perpetuity).

    So the PV using the formula is 314 / (0.12 – 0.03) = 314 x 11.11111

    If the perpetuity was starting at time 1, then this would give the PV now. However it starts at time 5, which is 4 years later, and therefore we need to discount for 4 years at 12% to get a PV now.
    This gives 314 x 11.1111 x 0.636 = 314 x 7.067

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