Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FR Financial Reporting Forums › dec 2009 uk question 2
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- June 11, 2010 at 11:07 am #44602
Hi
On the amount of revenue that should be deferred ,the service cost is 1,2 m ,and the margin is 40% ,so the amount to be deferred should be 1,2* 140% , I don’t understand why he divided 1.2m by 60%.
can someone make it clear for me pleasethanx
June 11, 2010 at 3:12 pm #63886AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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IAS18 (Revenue Recognition): If sales include aftersale servicing & support cost, then a proportion of sales/ revenue should be deferred. The deferred amount should cover costs & reasonable profit of the service.
In this question, we must deferred revenue of aftersale 2 years.
+ Servicing & support costs of 2 years aftersales: $1.2 x 2 years = $2.4
–> Which we need to caculate is Revenue deferred (not Costs)
+ Gross profit = 40%
=> Profit/ Sales = 40/100
=> Cost/ Sales = 60/100
=> Sales = (Cost x 100) / 60 = ($2.4 x 100) / 60 = $4mImpacts:
I/S: Sales – 4m
B/S: Deferred incomes (4m) of 2 next years (2m each year) will be shown in Currrent & Non-current Liabilities (2m for each)June 12, 2010 at 8:56 am #63887in the same question, we got the 5% convertible loan notes was issued for proceed 20 million on 1 Oct 2007, It has effective interest rate 8%, in normal practice, we should use amortisation method to amortise that mean, the finance cost should be 1648 instead of 1,475 as answer, Can you explain me this??
June 13, 2010 at 3:31 am #63888AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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We know: Convertible = Option + Redemption
When working on convertible loan note, pls take note: in TB, option is included or not.
+ If there’s no option–> It means that convertible loan note already included (option + Redemption) Pls work out as normal
+ If there ‘s option –> Then, Redemption = Convertible loan note – OptionIn this question, you can see TB shows Equity Option (2m)
So, Redemption = 20m (Proceed of convertible loan note) – 2m (Option) = 18mPeriod/ Bal owed at beginning/ Interest charge 8%/ Interest paid 5%/ Bal owed at the end
01.10.07-30.09.08/ 18 000 / 1440 =(18 000 x 8%) / (1000) =(5% x 20 000) / 18 440
01.10.08 -30.09.09/ 18 440 / 1475 = (18440 x 8%) / (1000) / 18 915You can see above:
+ (01/10/07-30/09/08): Bal owed at the end @ 30.09.08 = 18 440
This is also the bal owed at the beginning @ 01.10.09 of following period. And it is also the amount given in TB+ (01/10/08 -30/09/09):
I/S: Interest charge = 1475
B/S: Loan note payable at the end of period = 18 915. As it is redeemable in 2012, so it is in Non-current liability.June 13, 2010 at 4:42 am #63889Hi Trang, It’s really great, but it ‘s the first time I know this very new approach to figure out result like that :). Many thanks
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