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Pind co

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › Pind co

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • Author
    Posts
  • February 15, 2018 at 8:28 pm #437499
    mdhashim
    Member
    • Topics: 39
    • Replies: 10
    • ☆

    The following extract of income statement is given
    Operating profit :42000
    Interest charges :(16000)
    Pbt. :26000
    Taxation. :5460
    20540
    Pind co has an operating profit margin of 15%,non current liabilities payable 50000 current ratio 1.5 and quick ratio of 0.9 pind co has a receivable to cash ratio of 2:2.5 what is the receivable days ?
    Ans
    Payable is 50000 there fore , cash +receivable=45000 as receivable:cash ratio I’d 2:2.5, so receivable is 20000 and receivable days are 20000÷(40000÷0.15 ) ×365 =26 could you please explain the logic behind 40000÷0.15
    Thank you

    February 16, 2018 at 8:08 am #437551
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54709
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You have either copied the question wrongly, or you have not typed out the whole of the question. For example, you write that non-current liabilities are 50,000, but payables are not a non-current liability!

    However, I can explain the last part.
    Since the operating profit is 15% of the sales, the sales must be 42,000 / 15% = 280,000.

    Therefore the receivables days are (20,000 / 280,000) x 365 = 26 days

    (but again, either you have mistyped that bit of the answer or there is a typing mistake in the printed answer).

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