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Sir I meant to ask that in property transfer matters between parents and children, would this be a domestic and social relationship OR would it be a business and commercial arrangement?
Here would the intention be of legal relation?It would be a rebuttable presumption that there was no intention to create legal relations in a family / domestic situation
But either side may seek to establish that there really WAS intention to create legal relations by, for example, one side showing that they had taken active steps to arrange the finance to acquire the property
OK?
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