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reversal of impairment loss of individual assets

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › reversal of impairment loss of individual assets

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by MikeLittle.
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  • November 13, 2017 at 6:46 am #415482
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 0
    • ☆

    could you explain me reversal of impairment loss of individual assets with an example.
    also can u send me an exam oriented question related to this topic.

    November 13, 2017 at 7:36 am #415486
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    This is incredibly easy!

    Go back to impairment of an asset …

    … first ask “Was this asset previously revalued upwards?”

    So now we have two possibilities

    1) It was the subject of a previous increase, or

    2) It was not previously revalued

    Dealing with the first, the journal for reversing (by say $2,000) that previous INCREASE (say $1,200) would be:

    Dr Revaluation Reserve $1,200
    Dr Profit or Loss Account $800
    Cr Asset Account $2,000

    If it had not previously been the subject of a revaluation and is now simply the subject of an impairment of $2,000, the entry would be:

    Dr Profit or Loss Account $2,000
    Cr Asset Account $2,000

    Now, your post asks about the reversal of a previous impairment – let’s say the reversal is for $900

    We simply undo the previous impairment entry!

    In the first case we would:

    Dr Asset Account $900
    Cr Profit or Loss Account $800
    Cr Revaluation Reserve $100

    and in the second case we would:

    Dr Asset Account $900
    Cr Profit or Loss Account $900

    There is a third possibility where an asset has previously been revalued ($1,200) and the impairment was say $700

    The impairment entry would be:

    Dr Revaluation Reserve $700
    Cr Asset Account $700

    and, to reverse that impairment by, say $400, simply undo the impairing entry

    Dr Asset Account $400
    Cr Revaluation Reserve $400

    There is a bit of a problem here because, when reversing an impairment, we should not give an asset account an adjusted value greater than it would have been if we hadn’t impaired it in the first place

    Consider these values:

    Asset cost 2 years ago $4,000 and is being depreciated over 20 years at the rate of $200 each year

    Its carrying value now is $4,000 – (2 * $200) = $3,600

    Impair it down to $2,700

    Dr Profit or Loss Account $900
    Cr Asset Account $900

    Expected life hasn’t changed so, at date of impairment, there is still 18 years of life left in that asset and now annual depreciation has fallen to $2,700 / 18 = $150

    3 years later, we revalue that asset and it has a revised value of $3,100, so reverse that impairment

    At the date of this revaluation, the asset has a carrying value of $2,700 – (3 * $150) = $2,250 and we’re looking to reverse the previous impairment

    BUT we cannot restore the asset to a value greater than what it would have been without the impairment

    Without the impairment, our asset is now 5 years old and was being depreciated at $200 each year so it WOULD have had a carrying value of $4,000 – (5 * $200) = $3,000

    So, as a result of our decision to reverse that impairment, we are restricted in the amount that we can process

    The revaluation / impairment reversal entry will therefore be:

    Dr Asset Account $750
    Cr Profit or Loss Account $750

    and that restores the asset to a value that it would have had if we hadn’t impaired it

    But what about the $3,100 valuation?

    That remaining $100 would be treated as a ‘normal’ revaluation:

    Dr Asset Account $100
    Cr Revaluation Reserve $100

    Is that OK?

    (I can’t remember any past exam questions that asked for this, sorry)

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