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pup

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › pup

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • September 2, 2017 at 6:10 am #404957
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 0
    • ☆

    please help
    Ruby owns 30% of Emerald and exercises significant influence over it. Emerald sold goods to Ruby for $160,000. Emerald applies a one third mark up on cost. Ruby still had 25% of these goods in inventory at the year end. What amount should be deducted from consolidated retained earnings in respect of this transaction?

    September 2, 2017 at 9:01 am #404975
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23331
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The pup is 33.3/133.3 x $160,000 = $40,000

    MY way (that is not the same way as BPP nor Kaplan) is to deduct the full $40,000 from the associate’s retained earnings

    Then, when calculating the group’s share of the associate’s retained earnings, the principle of eliminating the group’s share of the associate’s pup is automatically dealt with

    Having calculated the group’s share of the associate’s adjusted retained earnings, that calculated figure is then the basis for:

    Dr Investment in associate
    Cr Consolidated retained earnings

    OK?

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    Posts
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