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WACC – HELP

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › WACC – HELP

  • This topic has 4 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 5 posts - 1 through 5 (of 5 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • August 27, 2017 at 7:43 am #403722
    jenny
    Participant
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Hi
    Would you be able to help me figuering out the correct answer for this question, please?

    Dominique Company’s capital structure consists entirely of long-term debt and common equity. The cost of capital for each component is shown below.

    Long-term debt 8%

    Common equity 15%
    Dominique pays taxes at a rate of 40%. If Dominique’s weighted average cost of capital is 10.41%, what proportion of the company’s capital structure is in the form of long-term debt?

    Select one:
    a. 55%
    b. 34%
    c. 45%
    d. 66%

    I tried to rearrange WACC = Ke(E/E+D) + Kd(D/E+D), but do not get the same answer as the sample explanation where they use WACC= .15X + .048 (1-X) = .1041.
    I don’t understand why if (E/E+D) equals X, why (D/E+D) becomes (1-X)?

    I greatly appreciate your help!

    Jenny

    August 27, 2017 at 10:15 am #403730
    khuramch
    Member
    • Topics: 41
    • Replies: 29
    • ☆☆

    Its only john who explain you the correct way to deal with this Mcq..
    But i just want to confirm that the correct Option is C=45%

    August 27, 2017 at 11:04 am #403748
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54670
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The cost of equity is 15%, the cost of debt is 8% x (1 – 0.4) = 4.8%

    With regard to the proportions, just suppose that debt was 10% (or 0.1) of the total capital. That would mean that equity was 100% – 10% = 90% (or 1 – 0.1 = 0.9) of the total capital.

    So if debt is a proportion X of the total, then equity is a proportion (1 – X) of the total.
    (Your printed answer has let X be the proportion of equity and therefore the proportion of debt is 1-X. You end up with the same final answer, but since the question asks for the proportion of debt I would let X be the proportion of debt and therefore 1-X is the proportion of equity).

    I assume you are happy with the rest of the workings in the answer, but for khuramch’s benefit…..
    If x is the proportion of debt, then:

    15(1-x) + 4.8x = 10.41
    15 – 15x + 4.8x = 10.41
    10.2x = 4.59
    x = 4.59/10.2 = 0.45 or 45%

    August 28, 2017 at 2:45 am #403833
    khuramch
    Member
    • Topics: 41
    • Replies: 29
    • ☆☆

    Thanks Sir 🙂

    August 28, 2017 at 7:54 am #403868
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54670
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 5 posts - 1 through 5 (of 5 total)
  • The topic ‘WACC – HELP’ is closed to new replies.

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