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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › IAS 36 – Impairment
Good afternoon Sir!
in reading about ias 36, in an answer to a question, the examiner had this to say:
1. that companies face the issue of applying ias 36 in times of ongoing uncertainty.
and one of the issues was valuation. Within valuation he said:
-the use of DCF methodology to estimate FVLCS is particularly troublesome.
my question: my first reaction is: FV is a number! its a figure u get from the market. so how can u use DCF to get FVLCS in the first place?? and u get this number at the time u perform the test.
is the examiner implying that justification for using DCF for FVLCS is not allowed but the companies are doing it anyway?
pls shed some light on it.
secondly, DCF is applicable in VIU. which i understand
regards
I suppose the scenario that we are considering is where an asset will be available for sale in 3 years’ time
So apply dcf to the future anticipated sale price and to the estimated costs of sale in three years
I don’t see an issue here? Am I missing something?