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Transfer pricing: technical article

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA APM Exams › Transfer pricing: technical article

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by ematete2005.
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    Posts
  • August 18, 2017 at 7:15 am #402307
    ematete2005
    Member
    • Topics: 22
    • Replies: 64
    • ☆☆

    My question comes after table 4 from scenario 1 which I have pasted below:

    (i) Intermediate product bought/sold for $40
    Division A would rather transfer to Division B, because receiving $50 is better than receiving $40. Division B would rather buy in at the cheaper $40, but that would be bad for the group because there is now a marginal cost to the group of $40 instead of only $18, the variable cost of production in Division A.

    My question is why would the marginal cost to the group be $18 only and not $18+$10=$28. Why is that the variable cost in Division B was not included in the marginal cost to the group?

    Thank you.

    August 18, 2017 at 10:55 am #402338
    Ken Garrett
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 10583
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is referring ti the marginal cost of the component, not the finished article.

    August 18, 2017 at 12:49 pm #402371
    ematete2005
    Member
    • Topics: 22
    • Replies: 64
    • ☆☆

    Oh, I get it. Thank you very much for the clarification and for the prompt response.

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  • The topic ‘Transfer pricing: technical article’ is closed to new replies.

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