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December 2015 Q1

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › December 2015 Q1

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
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  • August 15, 2017 at 9:36 pm #401987
    Avatarhelensqq
    Member
    • Topics: 21
    • Replies: 13
    • ☆

    Hi John,

    Appendix 3: cash flow calculation for year 1-4, PBIT are 2713,2849, 2991 and 3141. examiner used these figures to calculate the tax. However the interest is tax allowable, why did he deduct £720m first from the above figure before calculating the tax? Thank you.

    August 16, 2017 at 10:13 am #402031
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The answer has calculated the value of the firm by discounting the free cash flows at the WACC.

    We never subtract the interest (or deal with the tax saving on the interest) in arriving at the free cash flows – discounting at the WACC takes account of it (because the after-tax cost of debt is part of the calculation of the WACC).

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