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flash card question NCI

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › flash card question NCI

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by AvatarMikeLittle.
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  • February 27, 2017 at 10:05 am #374519
    Avatarlince0999
    Member
    • Topics: 16
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Hi Mike

    “When the non-controlling interest is valued on a proportional basis, how is the share of any impairment in the value of goodwill allocated?”

    Answer:

    When the non-controlling interest is valued on a proportional basis, any impairment of goodwill is allocated entirely to the parent entity

    Why is the above?

    I was thinking that when doing consolidation exercises I have always attributed the share of GW impairment to the NCI…

    February 27, 2017 at 10:32 am #374528
    AvatarMikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23368
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The key is the use of the word “proportional”

    Where nci is valued on a proportional basis their investment is taken to be their percentage share as applied to the fair value of the subsidiary’s identifiable net assets …

    … and goodwill is not an identifiable asset

    So in the workings to establish the value of the nci investment, no amount for goodwill is attributable to them

    Therefore all goodwill is ours

    And therefore 100% of any impairment of goodwill is attributed to teh parent

    Watch the lectures (they’re free) on this site

    OK?

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