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High-Low method

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › High-Low method

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • February 24, 2017 at 4:53 am #373955
    mika84
    Member
    • Topics: 99
    • Replies: 149
    • ☆☆☆

    Thank you very much for your help.

    One more question.

    If the table shows:
    Overhead costs Output volume
    7000 9400
    5688 7600
    6334 8500
    5446 7300

    Here the lowest OC corresponds with lowest OL

    But what if:
    Overhead costs Output volume
    7000 8100
    5688 7600
    6334 8500
    5446 7300

    Please confirm, what is the the right way of arriving at VC:
    (8500-7300)/(7000-5446) and FC= (7000 – VC*8100)
    or:
    (8500-7300)/(6334-5446) and FC= (6334 – VC*8500)

    I listened to your lectures, but please explain, if I something is missed, because I am really confused, adding to this pre-exam stress, I might just not see the simple things.
    Thank you.

    February 24, 2017 at 6:45 am #373963
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54835
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Since the cost depends on the output volume, you take the highest and lowest output volume and the associated costs.

    So it is (8500-7300)/(6334-5446) and FC= (6334 – VC*8500)

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • The topic ‘High-Low method’ is closed to new replies.

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