levante Co

This is a very straight-forward question on calculating the market value of debt using the yield curve given after adjusting it for credit spread relevant to the class of debt.

isnt a much easier way of doing it by directly taking the formula as:
yield on corporate debt= spot yield in that year+credit spread. and then calculating the present value of debt using the given coupon rate?

It gives us the exact same answer.

the second part of this question in bpp is even more confusing. They have asked to find the coupon rate at which the issue price will be equal to the nominal value. This is the case when the rate of interest=yield on bond.

So technically finding yield from credit spread given is so much easier.
Why has the bpp kit given such a long procedure for finding it?