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dividend received

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › dividend received

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • February 20, 2017 at 6:38 pm #373400
    xiiaolih
    Member
    • Topics: 65
    • Replies: 42
    • ☆☆

    Mike, its me again sorry for keep opening new thread

    because in working W3 (and also part of working W5) the group’s share of the associate is computed as:

    Group share of
    this year’s
    associate
    adjusted
    time apportioned
    profit after tax

    and that figure (profit after tax) is the amount from which the associate will then finance their dividend

    So by taking the share of profit after tax, the calculation takes in the share of retained earnings AND the share of the dividend paid by the associate

    Profit after tax –
    (Dividend) =
    Retained earnings

    Immediately BEFORE the sub-total “profit before taxation” there is the line:

    “Group’s share of Associate’s profit AFTER taxation”

    For the part u mention above,

    is that means the income from associate,
    we need to use (profit after tax -dividend paid by associate) xassociate%= xxx and then – impairment of goodwill?
    Thanks you so much

    February 20, 2017 at 8:42 pm #373410
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23327
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    No

    We use what I have written:

    Group share of
    this year’s
    associate
    adjusted
    time apportioned
    profit after tax

    The dividend income is ignored in any cross-addition of investment income

    Impairment is an impairment of the investment – it is NOT an impairment of goodwill because we don’t have goodwill on the acquisition of an associate – we have a premium on acquisition

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    Posts
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  • The topic ‘dividend received’ is closed to new replies.

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