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associate

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › associate

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by MikeLittle.
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  • February 20, 2017 at 1:14 pm #373349
    xiiaolih
    Member
    • Topics: 65
    • Replies: 42
    • ☆☆

    If there is associate company sell inventory to parent company or vice versa
    how to treat the unrealised profit on inventory in consolidated income statement?
    thanks

    February 20, 2017 at 1:26 pm #373350
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23327
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    This is an area where I differ from the official publishers’ texts

    The very easy way to eliminate the group’s share of the pup that arises on a transaction between the group and the associate is to, always, deduct the pup from the associate’s post-acquisition retained earnings

    This affects two figures on the statement of financial position so double entry is maintained

    First, by that reduction from the associate’s retained earnings we reduce automatically the group’s share (in $ terms) of the associate’s post-acquisition retained earnings in working W3 Consolidated Retained Earnings

    Then the double entry is again automatically satisfied in working W5A Investment in Associate because that calculation is based on cost of investment + the group’s share of the associate’s post-acquisition retained earnings – and that’s a figure that we have just reduced by the pup

    So there’s no affect on group inventory

    The alternative approach that you will come across in BPP and Kaplan is to differentiate between upstream and downstream transactions and, if I’m correct, the downstream transaction results in a deduction of the pup from group inventory and from the parent’s retained earnings

    But I am happy to stick with the very easy, quick and simple method of ALWAYS deducting the pup from the associate’s this year’s profits whether it’s an upstream, downstream or lost in a whirlpool transaction

    OK?

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