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MikeLittle.
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- February 15, 2017 at 11:05 am #372493
J acquired 24M $1 shares of the ord shares of B by offering a cash payment of $1 per share payable three years later. The cost of capital is 10% and $1 receivable in 3 years as $0.75. What is the cost of investment.
-The deferred payment is $0.75 x ($1 x 24M)= $18.Therefor, we credited the obligation account and debited to the account that measures the cost of acquisition .I do have understand the logic of this calculation but I still have some doubt about the finance cost.
-According to your explanation, the unwinding discount should be $18M x 10%=$1.8M; therefore DR finance cost and CR the obligation account.
1.My doubt comes from this $1.8M. If I CR $1.8M each year for 3 years, I will get $5.4M(the total unroll discount) and if add this to $18M, I will get $23.4M. But the total consideration is $24M. So what’s the problem here?. Am I understanding it wrong?
February 15, 2017 at 12:17 pm #37249918 unrolled is 18 * 1.10 =19.8
19.8 unrolled is 19.8 * 1.10 = 21.78
21.78 unrolled is 21.78 * 1.10 = 23.958 which, in the exam, is near enough to 24
Now go and listen to John’s lectures on discounted cash flows in F2!
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