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Hello sir
We are always told that companies that use revaluation model normaly transfer “excess dépréciation” a proportion of the to retained earning.How is the transfer an excess dépréciation?What will happen if that excess dépréciation is not transferred to retained earning?
The transfer from revaluation reserve to retained earnings is the difference between the depreciation calculated on the revalued amount and the depreciation calculated on the original cost.
Companies are entitled to do this, but they do not have to do it.
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