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Income taxes

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Income taxes

  • This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
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  • February 6, 2017 at 6:19 am #371264
    Anuja Nair
    Member
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    Statement: Interest expense accrued but included in taxable profit on a cash basis should be classified under deductible temporary differences.

    Hi sir could you explain the above statement to me ? How will the tax base exceed the carrying value ?

    February 6, 2017 at 8:24 am #371269
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
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    Where the country’s tax rules state that interest expense is deductible only in the period when it is actually PAID rather than the period to which it relates (accruals basis) then that gives rise to a temporary timing difference

    Taxman will allow the entity to claim as a tax deductible amount the interest only against the profits of the year in which that interest is paid so that’s how the tax base can exceed the carrying amount

    OK?

    February 6, 2017 at 9:09 am #371285
    Anuja Nair
    Member
    • Topics: 365
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    • ☆☆☆☆

    okay. Let’s take for example dividends receivable from a subsidiary have a carrying amount of 100. The dividends are not taxable. In substance, the entire carrying amount of the asset is deductible against the economic benefits. Consequently, the tax base of the dividends receivable is 100.

    Am I right sir ? Does this treatment apply to all dividends or it varies with situations? All dividends are not taxable and in substance the entire carrying amount of the asset is deductible against the economic benefits, therefore the tax base – Carrying value ?

    February 6, 2017 at 11:31 am #371310
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
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    I don’t know much about taxation on dividends but in so far as I can remember the UK rules, dividends are taxed at source and so would be added in to the taxable profits at a grossed up amount, overall tax computed, and then the withholding tax on the dividend would be deducted from that tax amount payable

    And, again in so far as I remember, dividends are taxed on a receipts basis

    So in a company’s tax computation – you’ll need to speak to Tax Tutor on F6 if you want a definitive answer – investment income would be included with profit before tax at a grossed up amount (and this would be grossed up and included within the profits chargeable to corporation tax for the year in which the dividend was actually received)

    In this respect, I’m not sure whether there’s a deferred tax implication because tax is already deducted by way of withholding tax at source

    February 6, 2017 at 12:20 pm #371313
    Anuja Nair
    Member
    • Topics: 365
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    • ☆☆☆☆

    Okay sir. Thanks.

    February 6, 2017 at 1:32 pm #371322
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23327
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You’re welcome

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