Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › revision live: Q1 june 14 (part 1)
- This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
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- February 3, 2017 at 1:05 pm #370908
hi sir
i didnt get the part where you calculated the basis change 24-8 and then figure of the change in basis came as 0.0016.
because the way ive been practicing was the how you did in the lectures- where we calculate the basis for the number of months the transaction is due in , and the future price is the balance between the basis and the spot rate.
could you please explain the above thanks.
also another question , this may be stupid to ask, but is the lock in rate the actual future rate when the transaction will take place?
thanks alot
February 3, 2017 at 2:59 pm #370919We do not know what the spot rate will be in 4 months time, so we need to calculate the lock-in rate.
The lock-in rate is not an actual future price, it is a rate that gives the net effect of converting the transaction at spot, together with the profit or loss on the futures.
I explain it in full in my lectures on the lock-in rate.
February 3, 2017 at 3:55 pm #370936thank you sir
February 4, 2017 at 9:54 am #371013You are welcome 🙂
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