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Leases

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Leases

  • This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • November 12, 2016 at 1:32 pm #348593
    complicated
    Member
    • Topics: 110
    • Replies: 210
    • ☆☆☆

    Hi Mike,

    From what I know any incentives received under an operating lease arrangement will be recognized by the lessee as a reduction of the rental expense over the lease term. What about incentives received under a financing lease arrangement? Are there such incentives at all?

    Repurchase agreements:
    Under a repurchase agreement, if the repurchase price is lesser than the original selling price, the entity should treat it as a lease under IAS 17. Does it mean that, for example, if the company sells the asset for $5 million and has the right to repurchase it in 4 years time for $4 million, it will derecognize its asset SOFP and record rental payments of $1 million in its SOPL each year (like an operating lease?)

    Hoping to hear from you, thank you!

    November 12, 2016 at 4:15 pm #348621
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    “What about incentives received under a financing lease arrangement? Are there such incentives at all?”

    There may be but their effect is lost within the routine accounting for finance leases

    As for the second problem …

    This looks to me that the cost over 4 years is only $1 million so the annual cost is only $250,000

    Does that make more sense to you?

    November 12, 2016 at 4:42 pm #348630
    complicated
    Member
    • Topics: 110
    • Replies: 210
    • ☆☆☆

    Sorry, I don’t quite understand the second problem.. why do we recognize cost of $1 million when the entity benefits from the transaction?

    What would happen to the asset? Would it decrease in value by $250,000 (in addition to any depreciation) each year?

    Hoping to hear from you again, thank you 🙂

    November 12, 2016 at 9:22 pm #348651
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    What a silly question! I hoped that I had understood it in the first place and that the cost to the company was going to be just $250,000 each year but, No, I have totally misunderstood the scenario

    And what a crazy scenario it is too

    Don’t worry – you’re not likely to be faced with anything this outrageous in the exam

    So, you’re saying that we can sell for $500 and buy back in 4 years’ time for $400

    I shall indulge your fantasies, this once

    How about, on “sale” of the asset

    Dr Cash $5m
    Cr Loan $5m

    Each year, we need to:

    Dr Loan $250,000
    Cr statement of Income $250,000

    Then, after 4 years, we need to

    Dr Loan $4m
    cr Cash $4m

    I don’t believe that I have allowed myself to go so deeply into a silly scenario! !

    November 13, 2016 at 12:19 pm #348713
    complicated
    Member
    • Topics: 110
    • Replies: 210
    • ☆☆☆

    I asked because it was written in the BPP study text that “if the repurchase price is below the original selling price, the transaction should be accounted for as a lease in accordance with IAS 17”, so thought I’d come up with an example since there was no explanation nor example given in the text.

    Apologies for asking this silly question, thanks for the help 🙂 🙂

    November 13, 2016 at 4:19 pm #348739
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You’re welcome .. and don’t worry about it being silly! It’s the scenario that you have set up that is unrealistic and I’ve seen questions on this site that make your question seem like something from a Mastermind programme

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