Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Ve and Vd in Asset beta and WACC formulas
- This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
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- November 8, 2016 at 4:47 pm #348099
Hi John,
In calculation of WACC, you might have debt value (Vd) and equity value (Ve) available in amounts of market value ($) and in proportion (%) of debt and equity finance.
Examples:
Mve = $480
Mvd = $1.200
Debt-to-equity = 40:60I see most of answers in this sort of questions seeming to ignore the Mve and Mvd working with the Debt-to-equity ratio Vd(40) and Ve(60) in the WACC formula. Using Mve and Mvd gives a different result.
What is the correct approach for this?
November 9, 2016 at 8:03 am #348156You will not find answers using the ratio of debt to equity for calculating the WACC (and anyway, debt to equity in your illustration is not 40:60. Debt to equity is 1200/480!)
The ratios used are equity to total MV, and debt to total MV, which in your illustration are 480/(480 + 1200) = 28.57% for equity, and 1200/(480 + 1200) = 71.43% for debt.
If a question gives the total market values of debt and equity, then use them. If alternatively you are given debt and equity both as %’s of the total MV then use them – either way gives exactly the same answer.
Have you watched my free lectures on the cost of capital?
November 9, 2016 at 7:46 pm #348259Thanks John. I will also go through your free lectures on this matter.
November 10, 2016 at 8:37 am #348302You are welcome 🙂
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