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Im just doing passed papers and I am struggling, with Question 1 on December 2014 in the goodwill for Margy they have in the answer 266 for the fair value adjustment for land. There is a note on the land which is note 3 but I can not see how they get to the 266.
Please can anyone help I think I may be looking at it wrong.
NA 2250 -40 due to decrease + 1 remeasurement gain / reduction in liabilty.. correct ?
i mean when calculating for NDL we use 2250 book value or can use adjusted 2211 (2250-40+1) …
if i use 2211-1020 share cap -900 re – 70 oce = 221
and for asset held for sale (HFS))
14.1- dep = 13.9 thn it classify as HFS at fair value 15.4 thn tested for imapairment ,not impair VIU is high.. thn HFS is measured at lower of carrying amont 15.4 or fair value less cost to sell 15.1 ……i m correct ?
but now whn it for 15.6 .. the gain should not be .5 -.3 (loss on 15.4 -15.3) – .1 (dep)2250 – 40 + 1 =1020 + 900 + 70 – 5 + XXX (balancing figure of ndl adj which is 266)
i m doing like this
2250 – 40 + 1 = 2211
1020 + 900 + 70 – 5 = (1985)
=226Hello
I am really struggling with the fair value adjustment even with the illustration in my book.
Question says the fair value on spear difference on sub relates to ppe being depreciated through cos over remaining life 12 year from Acquisition date. The associate fair value relates to piece of land ( which has not yet been sold since acquisition.
This is information in question
Acquisition date 1/4/2004
At Acq’n
Sub = SC=2500 RE=4000 SP 500 FAIR VALUE=8200 INVESTMENT=7000
ASS= SC 1000 RE=3000 FAIR VALUE 5000 INVESTMENT 2500At 31/12/2010
Sub = SC=2500 SP=500 RE=6200 PROFIT IN YEAR WAS 4200.00
ASS = SC=1000.00 RE=3500 PROFIT IN YEAR WAS =1840Answer shows
Sub
At aqu 1200 – FV ADJ (700) AT YEAR END 500
ASS
At aqu 1000 FV ADJ 0 AT YEAR END 1000Please can you help at what i am missing
Thanks
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