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Sir , in chap 7 example 5 ,lecture 4, at 07:50 , you said f there was any goodwill impairment none will go against them because it is proportionately valued.
I cannot understand this and how it is proportionately valued?
please reply, thanks in advance.
Have you watched the lecture where I show the effect of having the NCI proportionately valued?
In this situation, the NCI is valued on the basis of their proportionate share of the subsidiary’s fair valued net assets at date of acquisition … ie they are NOT entitled to any goodwill that may arise on that acquisition
Does that explain it for you?
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