Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Difference in revaluation of IAS 16 and IAS 40
- This topic has 9 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by  MikeLittle. MikeLittle.
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- August 16, 2016 at 6:52 am #333456Hi, 
 Whats the difference/is there any difference in revaluation of IAS 16 and IAS 40.
 Thanks,
 FurqanAugust 16, 2016 at 12:18 pm #333515A revaluation of PPE under IAS 16 is taken through Revaluation Reserve Dr Asset 
 Cr Revaluation ReserveA revaluation under IAS 40 … … upon the event of a re-classification from PPE to Investment Property, the asset is revalued and accounted for under IAS 16 ie through Revaluation Reserve Subsequent to that re-classification, any movement in the value of the investment property goes straight through statement of profit or loss OK? August 17, 2016 at 5:14 am #333705Hi, Sorry mike i got what you were saying but could you explain with the help of this example what the difference would be? 
 An asset is bought for 2000 (10yr Life).
 2 years later it is revalued to 2000.
 One year after that it is impaired to 800Thanks in advance August 17, 2016 at 7:57 am #333737Dr TNCA 2,000 
 Cr Cash 2,000Two years depreciation Dr Depreciation (PorL) 400 (200 x 2) 
 Cr Provision for Depreciation 400Revalue to 2,100 (I’m changing the figure to 2,100 to avoid confusion with the cost of 2,000) Dr Provision for Depreciation 400 
 Dr TNCA 100
 Cr Revaluation Reserve 500And this revalued asset, at the end of 2, has a remaining expected useful life of 8 years Depreciate for year 3 (2,100/8) Dr Depreciation Account 262.5 
 Cr Provision for Depreciation 262.5Carrying value now 2,100 – 262.5 = 1,837.5 Impair down to 800 so reduce by 1,037.5 Dr Revaluation Reserve 500 
 Dr PorL 537.5
 Cr TNCA 1,037.5OK? August 19, 2016 at 5:19 am #334016Yes got it thanks a lot Mike!! August 19, 2016 at 8:24 am #334049You’re welcome September 1, 2016 at 11:46 am #336773Mike would be really grateful if you could explain the difference if impairment occurs and then revaluation,i am especially confused by the double entries. 2002 Asset 140 UEL of 7 years No residual value. 
 2003 impaired to 60
 2005 revalued to 110
 Thanks & Regards,
 FurqanSeptember 1, 2016 at 1:04 pm #336810Without impairment 140 cost in 2002 
 20 depreciation 2002
 120 carrying value at end 200220 depreciation 2003 
 100 carrying value at end 200320 depreciation 2004 
 80 carrying value at end 200420 depreciation 2005 
 60 carrying value before revaluation
 50 revaluation
 110 carrying value at end 2005With impairment and revaluation 140 cost in 2002 
 20 depreciation 2002
 120 carrying value at end 200220 depreciation 2003 
 100 carrying value
 40 impairment
 60 carrying value at end 200312 depreciation 2004 
 48 carrying value at end 200412 depreciation 2005 
 36 carrying value before revaluation
 74 revaluation
 110 carrying value at end 2005So we need to reverse the impairment but we can only unimpair the asset back to the level that it would have been if we hadn’t impaired it in 2003 If we hadn’t impaired, the asset would have been carried at 60 as at the end of 2005 so the unimpairment can only take the asset carrying value back up to 60 With the impairment, as at the end of 2005, the carrying value is 36 so we are able to debit the asset with just 24 (60 – 36) 74 revaluation amount will be credited to statement of profit or loss but only up to the amount of 24 – to get the asset carrying value back to what it would have been without impairment The remainder amount of 50 will be credited to revaluation reserve and the full 74 debited to TNCA OK? October 17, 2016 at 4:12 am #343756Hi Mike, Just wanted to say a big thank you I got 66 in my F7 you guys rock,i cleared three papers in 3 months thanks to you guys. Best Regards, 
 FurqanOctober 17, 2016 at 7:47 am #343904That’s a great result, well done! 
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