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BPP Question on investment appraisal:

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › BPP Question on investment appraisal:

  • This topic has 9 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 10 posts - 1 through 10 (of 10 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • August 9, 2016 at 10:54 am #332183
    acca9
    Member
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 50
    • ☆☆

    Please help me with the following question, i do not understand BPP’s answer at the back.

    Juicy Co is considering investing in a new industrial juicer for use on a new contract. It will cost $150 000 and will last 2 years. Juicy Co pays corporation tax at 30% ( as the cash flows occur) and, due to health benefits of juicing, the machine attracts 100% tax allowable depreciation immediately.

    Given a cost of capital of 10%, what is the minimum value of the pre tax contract revenue receivable in 2 years which would be required to cover the net cost of the juicer?

    A: $150 0000
    B: $105 000
    C: $127 050
    D: $181 500

    Thank you so much.

    August 9, 2016 at 3:11 pm #332218
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The flows (ignoring the revenue) are as follows:

    0 Cost (150,000)
    0 Tax saving on depreciation (150,000 x 0.3) 45,000

    So a PV of (105,000)

    If the revenue is R, then the after tax flow in 2 years time is R – 0.3R = 0.7R

    For break even, then NPV needs to be zero, and therefore the PV of 0.7R has to equal 105.000

    So 0.7R x 0.826 = 105,000
    R = 181,598, and so the answer has to be D

    (The reason that it is a bit different to 181,500 is due to rounding – the exact discount factor of 2 years at 10% – 1/(1.1)^2 and if you do it to more decimal places then it does come to 181,500)

    August 10, 2016 at 4:33 am #332296
    acca9
    Member
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 50
    • ☆☆

    “If the revenue is R, then the after tax flow in 2 years time is R – 0.3R = 0.7R”

    Why is this? Im not getting it? You’ve already worked out the tax….

    August 10, 2016 at 7:05 am #332325
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    But there are two tax effects – the tax saving on the tax allowable depreciation but also the tax that have to be paid on the revenue.

    If the revenue is R, then they will have to pay tax of 0.3R on it, leaving a net inflow of 0.7R

    August 10, 2016 at 10:33 am #332389
    acca9
    Member
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 50
    • ☆☆

    Thanks!

    August 10, 2016 at 2:44 pm #332533
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

    July 22, 2018 at 3:53 am #464188
    lachu910
    Member
    • Topics: 28
    • Replies: 38
    • ☆☆

    Hi John… i have a quick question. The question above says “what is the minimum value of the pre tax contract revenue ” required. I believe pre tax means before tax effect..So shouldnt R be not after deducting tax?

    Please help me on this?

    July 22, 2018 at 9:23 am #464205
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Pre-tax does indeed mean before tax.

    But the tax is affected by the revenue and in what I wrote above R is pre-tax.

    July 22, 2018 at 4:19 pm #464236
    lachu910
    Member
    • Topics: 28
    • Replies: 38
    • ☆☆

    Thank you

    July 22, 2018 at 6:49 pm #464259
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

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    Posts
Viewing 10 posts - 1 through 10 (of 10 total)
  • The topic ‘BPP Question on investment appraisal:’ is closed to new replies.

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