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Few of the examples in the article in which the tax payer is a lower rate payer the tax liability is derived without reducing bank deposit interest and dividend interest at the end . Why is it so?
Not sure exactly what question you are asking here but if you mean why are the tax credits on dividends and bank interest NOT deducted “at the end”, then it will be because the question has asked for tax liability which is before deducting the tax credits. Only if the question asks for tax PAYABLE do we then deduct the credits from the income tax LIABILITY.
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