Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FA – FIA FFA › Consolidated SOFP
- This topic has 8 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by
John Moffat.
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- October 13, 2015 at 6:44 pm #276214
P acquired 70% of S.
SOFP
Current Liabilities: P. S
Payables. $9000. $2460
Dividend. $20000. $10000October 13, 2015 at 6:51 pm #276216my calculation was
CSFP:
Payables(9000+2460)=11,460
Dividend(20,000+10,000)=30,000
as the total assets and liability should be stated in Group.but the solution was
CSFP:
Payables(9000+2460)=11,460
Dividend[(20,000+(10,000X30%)]=23,000
Please explain sir!October 14, 2015 at 7:41 am #276244It is because in the consolidated accounts you only show dividends payable outside the group (so not dividends paid from one company to the other)
October 14, 2015 at 12:10 pm #276298thanks moffat sir!!
70% of the sub’s divident going to received by the parent and 30% by the others that’s why we are showing only the outside liability here!
am I correct sir!October 14, 2015 at 12:17 pm #276300P co. acquired 80% of the equity share capital of S co. several yrs ago.In the yr to 31 dec 20X4, P co made a profit after tax of $120,000 and S co. made $35,000.
during the yr S co. sold goods to P co. at a price of $40,000.The profit mark-up was 40% on the sales price.At dec 20X4, 25% of these goods were still held in the inventory of P co.
what profit is attributable to the parents company in the CSOPL of the P group for the yr 31 dec 20X4?October 14, 2015 at 12:24 pm #276302the only problem I face here is to calculate the PURP:
is that means a mark-up of 40% over the $40,000?
so here,140%?40,000??
please explain sir!October 14, 2015 at 6:29 pm #276331Usually mark-up is a % of cost, but if this question actually says the profit is a markup of 40% of sales price, then the profit is 40% of 40,000 = 16,000. Since 25% of the goods were still in inventory the PURP is 25% x 40,000 = 10,000
October 15, 2015 at 10:37 am #276409thanks moffat sir!
October 15, 2015 at 4:07 pm #276534You are welcome 🙂
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