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Gift of asset

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA TX-UK Exams › Gift of asset

  • This topic has 5 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by Ema.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • October 4, 2015 at 9:38 pm #274961
    Ema
    Member
    • Topics: 73
    • Replies: 107
    • ☆☆

    Hi tutor,
    If employee has used an asset and after 2 or 3 years he has been gifted that asset by the employer so do we have to calculate for each year separately? also when it was provided it was not for the full year as taught in the question in your lectures..

    October 5, 2015 at 6:03 am #274974
    tinaboy
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 126
    • ☆☆

    The higher of:

    1. Market Value less price paid
    Or
    2. Cost when first provided -tax paid -it’s cost to the employee.

    In most cases it is 2

    October 5, 2015 at 5:44 pm #275064
    Ema
    Member
    • Topics: 73
    • Replies: 107
    • ☆☆

    Can you plz explain it with an example I am not yet clear with it actually.

    October 5, 2015 at 5:52 pm #275066
    Tax Tutor
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 3965
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    While the asset is still owned by the company the employee is assessed based on 20% of the OMV of the asset when it was first made available for private use. This is the annual benefit and if the loan was only available for half of the tax year then only 6/12 of the annual benefit would be assessable.
    For example if an asset was purchased by a company on 1 October 2013 for £1,000 and immediately made available for the private use of an employee then the benefit assessable in the 2013/14 tax year will be 1,000 x 20% x 6/12 = 100
    If the asset was then sold to the employee on 1 January 2015 then the assessment in 2014/15 would be 1,000 x 20% x 9/12 = 150
    In addition a further assessment arises in 2014/15 on the transfer of the asset to the employee based on the higher of the OMV of the asset or its tax wdv – less the price paid by the employee. For this purpose let us assume that on 1 January 2015 the OMV of the asset was £600 and it was sold to the employee for £500.
    The further benefit would be computed as follows:
    Higher of:
    (1) OMV £600, or
    (2) Tax wdv (1,000 – (100 + 150) = 750

    less the price paid of £500

    Hence the further benefit would be (750 – 500) = 250

    October 5, 2015 at 6:13 pm #275069
    tinaboy
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 126
    • ☆☆

    When it is sold isn’t it the higher of :

    1.MV at acquisition less price paid

    600-500=£100

    OR

    Cost when first provided less tax charged less price paid

    £1000-350-500=£250

    Making option 2 the higher therefore the benefit to be added to employee income

    I completely agree with your example,but since the question is what will be the charge given that there is no price paid by the employee ,will the benefit charge be £750.The higher of OMV or Tax written down value as you have correctly put it?

    October 5, 2015 at 10:52 pm #275095
    Ema
    Member
    • Topics: 73
    • Replies: 107
    • ☆☆

    Yes I think the benefit would be £750 as it is not necessary that the employee has to pay some amount for the gift.
    Thanks tutor and tinaboy I have understood. !

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