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question from december 2014 question 1

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › question from december 2014 question 1

  • This topic has 6 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 7 posts - 1 through 7 (of 7 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • August 31, 2015 at 7:56 am #269231
    syed ali
    Member
    • Topics: 92
    • Replies: 54
    • ☆☆

    at the time of business combination with margy (subsidairy)the joey (parent) has included in the fairvalue of margy identifiable net assets an unrecognised contingent liability of 6 million in respect of a warranty claim in progress against margy.in march 2014,there was a revision of the estimate of the liability to 5 million the amount has met the criteria to be recognised as a provision in current liabilties in the financial statements of margy and the revision of the estimate is deemed to be a measurement period adjustment.sir how this scenario is deal please help me regarding this

    August 31, 2015 at 8:30 am #269243
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    $6m will have been recorded as a liability as at date of acquisition. Now, within the 12 months subsequent, further information enables us to put a more accurate value on this liability.

    Dr Liability $1m
    Cr Profit or Loss $1m

    Now we are showing the liability at a more realistic valuation of $5m

    Ok?

    August 31, 2015 at 1:14 pm #269285
    syed ali
    Member
    • Topics: 92
    • Replies: 54
    • ☆☆

    thankyou so much sir for giving me answer thanks

    August 31, 2015 at 4:07 pm #269313
    Anirudh
    Participant
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 16
    • ☆

    Dear Mike,

    I understand the revision bit. Why do we credit (credit entry) the consolidated financial statements by $5m.

    RE $3.5m & NCI $1.5m

    Thanks

    August 31, 2015 at 6:53 pm #269338
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I don’t understand your question! I have never mentioned crediting the consolidated financial statements with $5m

    At date of acquisition the previously unrecognised liability will have been recorded in accordance with IFRS3 revised so now, immediately after acquisition, there is a liability in the subsidiary records of $6m and goodwill will have been correspondingly affected

    Within the 12 month post-acquisition period, there is a reassessment of the value of this liability and it’s to be reduced by $1m

    Dr Liability
    Cr Profit or Loss

    in the subsidiary’s records

    Working 4A NCi on the SoFP takes value at date of acquisition + share of post-acq retained – their share of any goodwill impairment

    By giving the nci their share of post-acq retained we are giving them automatically their share of this $1m adjustment

    Is that not clear?

    August 31, 2015 at 7:51 pm #269348
    syed ali
    Member
    • Topics: 92
    • Replies: 54
    • ☆☆

    sir but depreciation is the same case we adust it in (net asset at acquisition and reporting working) and from there it is shared between NCI and GROUP RETAINED EARNINGS
    but NON CURRENT ASSET is credit with depreciation in sofp
    in the case above why we should not recognize 5m current liability as it meets criteria of recognizing per question

    August 31, 2015 at 9:39 pm #269367
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    What are you talking about?

    We HAVE recognised the liability! As the value of the liability changes from one year to the next, that change is double entered to the statement of profit or loss and the nci get their share of this year’s retained profits

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