Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Amount Invoiced + Calculation of True Profits in Construction Industry (IAS-11)
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- April 23, 2015 at 7:47 pm #242376
Dear Respected,
I am working in a construction company and i want to clearify the following points;
1. In your lecture notes, we deduct amount invoiced (progress payments) from the gross amount receivable from customer in order to calculate the unbilled amount due from customer (WIP). I want to know whether the amount invoiced is the amount of work submitted (Submitted IPC) or the one approved by the client (Approved IPC) ??
2. Plus confirm me is that the total of progress payments todate (Cummulative IPCs todate) not the latest one??
3. Usually, when we would like to measure project performance (alonwith project manager), we would really like to use Work Certified to date (Value of work invoiced todate) method to calculate the %age of work completed but if this method is used then cost recognized is the balancing figure of revenue recognized less attributable profit.which means that balancing figure of cost to be recognized doesn,t reflect the true spendings on a project and therefore doesn,t help us to measure performance of the project as well its PM (project manager) or PD (project director).we want true spendings to measure their performance. In the same way, if cost basis is used to calculate the %age completion of a project then it deprives me from actual revenue and enforces me to put revenue as balancing figure of contract cost recognized less attributable profit.
I really need advise on this as how to calculate the true project profit loss and how to track the project performance with its spending..????
As such now i am Looking forward to your precious reply !!April 23, 2015 at 11:27 pm #242389Hi Muhammed
In answer to your first question, it entirely depends upon the accounting policy adopted by your company! Sometimes revenue / percentage complete is calculated as a proportion of work certified, sometimes as a proportion of costs incurred compared with total estimated costs, and sometimes by another method equally reliably measurable. It depends entirely on the accounting policy.
In working W3 the payments received is cumulative
Question 3 again it depends upon your company policy. However, you can I presume gauge performance by looking at actual profitability of completed projects. Performance could also be judged by how many of your contracts are behind schedule and how many are completed ahead of schedule.
Where your company submits tenders and includes within the tender price an amount representing profit on the contract, you could then compare forecast profit with actual
Does that help?u
April 24, 2015 at 6:55 am #242398Yes Q 2 & 3 are well answered.
but i need a bit of more advice here.As per your lecture notes, Amount receivable from /(to) customer is calculated as ‘Amount Invoiced less amount received’. and you know very well that when a portion of work is submitted (Interim Payment Certificate-IPC) say PKR 100 Million, then IPC Approved is as per the working of Consultants & client which clearly doesn,t remain the same let say its PKR 88 Million.
Now we have a Gross IPC of PKR 88 Million which is not 100% received.what we receive is the Net IPC calculated as;
Net IPC = Gross IPC – Retention Money (10% in Pakistan) – Mobilization Advance (5- 20%in Pakistan) – Income Tax (6% in Pakistan).Now say the Net IPC received is PKR 64 Million.
Now how to calculate the amount receivable from customer ???
1. Is that Amount Invoiced (IPC Submitted i-e 100 Million) less Amount Receivable (Gross IPC i-e 88 Million) ?? OR
2. it is Amount Invoiced (IPC Approved i-e 88 Million) less Amount Received (Net IPC Received i-e 64 Million) ??Thanks
April 24, 2015 at 7:17 am #242403I don’t know what a “mobilisation advance is” but let’s consider the rest
We invoice 100 and we receive 64. The difference is made up of:
– retention money 10
– income tax 6 and
– mobilisation 20Ask yourself “Do they still owe me that 10% retention money?”. Of course they do, so that will remain in the receivables account until the retention period is over and the money is received
What about the 6 income tax? Is this tax deducted at source that will be paid by the client on your behalf? In which case I imagine that when you prepare the tax return and financial statements, you will calculate the tax owed and then deduct this 6 from your tax liability
So, accounting for it! On receipt of the 64 you will need to Dr Cash 64, Dr Income Tax 6 and Cr Receivables 70
You need to apply the same sort of thinking to the mobilisation advance
That then leaves 10 retention in the Receivables Account and maybe also the 20 mobilisation (dependent upon how that is treated)
Ok?
April 24, 2015 at 12:34 pm #242451Yes sir.
I got it.
Thank you so much.Only a bit more that what journal entry we would make when we invoice our customer ?
Dr Receivables Cr what ?? ideally should we Credit Revenue OR Progress Billings ??
and how it would be treated ?? Please highlight this with a finest example with a journal entry.Bundle of thanks
April 24, 2015 at 12:44 pm #242452Mobilization Advance is the advance payment made by the client to the contractor to mobilize (start) the project. Usually this is 20% of the project value and is paid upfront to mobilize the contractor to start the project. This is then deducted from each submitted IPC (Interim Payment Certificate). Deduction rate varies from 5% to 20%. Essentially this is an interest free source of finance provided by the client. and therefore recorded as Dr Bank Cr Mobilization Advance. In a nut shell, it is opposite of the Retention Money.
Thanks
Muhammad Waqas ACCAApril 24, 2015 at 7:15 pm #242512Credit Revenue
Re mobilisation, I imagine (don’t know for sure) that you’d have to Dr Mobilisation Advance Account and Credit Receivables
Is that ok for you?
One question from me to you – this is obviously not a new company – what has been happening in the past?
April 25, 2015 at 7:38 am #242533Topic # 1 (Mobilization)
No sir may be in uk there is a concept of Re Mobilization.. if yes please explain this for our knowledge.but in Pakistan, Mobilization Payment is the advance payment by the client to the contractor to mobilize him to start the project with these funds.However, its is a kind of interest free source of finance / loan for the contractor by the client and this subsequently deducted from each subsequent IPC.
Let say project value is PKR 4000 Million, then Mobilization advance would be PKR 800 Million (4000 X 20%) paid upfront.
at this stage we make the following journal entry;
Dr Bank 800 Million
Cr Mobilization Advance (Liability) 800 MillionNow this mobilization advance would be deducted on each subsequent IPC. and the %age of deduction varies from 5 % – 20% . let say this is 10% agreed in this project.
Now say after 2.5 month we submit the first IPC valued 100 Million.Now we make the following journal entry;
Dr Receivable 100 Million
Cr Revenue 100 MillionOn receipt of this amount; 10% of this value shall be deducted as mobilization advance reduction,10% retention money, 6% Income Tax etc.
and now we make the following entry to record this transaction;Dr Bank 74 Million
Dr Mobilization Advance 10 Million
Dr Income Tax 6 Million
Dr Retention Money 10 Million
Cr Receivable 100 Millioni-e Mobilization advance is a kind of loan (interest free loan) to the contractor by the client amortized over the project life with the total IPCs of the project over its life.
Let say (to keep it simple) our project submits same IPC each time (it always submits work done valued 100 Million), this 10% deduction would take mobilization advance repaid in 40 IPCs. and the end of the project, mobilization advance would be Nill.
This was just to share with you my honourable sir and i would be pleased if you explain the Re Mobilization concept as you mentioned in your above reply and let grasp on construction accounting with your honourable support.
Topic # 2 (Revenue)
Dear Sir, the practice being followed for revenue recognition in my company is as;When an IPC is submitted, then the journal entry made is
Dr Progress Billing
Cr Fund Transfer (Relevant Project)similary all expenses (Cement, diesel, steel, water stopper etc) incurred on a project are recorded as
1st entry
Dr Expenses A/C
Cr Bank / Payable2nd entry
Dr Fund Transfer (Relevant Project)
Cr Expenses A/Cnow the balance on Fund Transfer Ledger is the transferred to profit A/C.
Dear sir, i know this wrong treatment and our Accounts manager is ACMA Inter and working with organization since last 34 years and thinks he accounting treatment is correct. I am working in its finance department (Fund Management Portion) since a year and i observe such kind of surprises here.then i had an account with opentuition when i was a student , consulted your lecture notes, then vedio lectures, then consulted you for practicalilites. Your kind support means a lot for me sir.
Once against Thanks
Looking for your Answer
Muhammad Waqas ACCAApril 25, 2015 at 8:10 am #242540Point 1) The “Re” in “Re mobilisation” simply means “With reference to”
If you remember your F4 law days, there are cases with the title “re McArdle” and “re Sigsworth”
Your explanation of the accounting treatment of the mobilisation element included within the subsequent receipt from the receivable is exactly what I have posted ie Dr mobilisation advance account and Cr receivables
Re your second point, I’m sorry Muhammad, I don’t see a lot wrong with the entries that you have recorded! The only possible comment is the treatment of the expenses. How do you arrive at the amount to be transferred from Expenses Account to Fund Transfer Relevant Project Account. Is the amount transferred in any way related to or calculated on the same basis as the revenue recognition?
Is the matching concept of revenues and expenses being followed? If it is, I can see nothing wrong with the existing treatment. I don’t think that this is the answer that you were looking for and I’m sorry for that 🙁
Incidentally, if matching concept is NOT being followed and expenses are simply allocated to the various projects and transferred each month in order to “empty out” the Expenses Account, then that would not be appropriate treatment.
There should be some effort to recognise say 60% of TOTAL estimated costs of the contract where you have recognised 60% of the contract value as revenue
Ok?
April 25, 2015 at 11:21 am #242642Lolx ….Sir i am also clear about this and no objection with the fund transfer ledger.
As such, i am looking at 9 local and 4 international projects. As i am in Fund Management section, therefore i do maintain the Fund Transferred to sites and call for Fund Allocation via Fund Transfer ledger.The only issue i had was the that the matching concept of revenue recognition & expenses was not being followed and hence on profit & loss analysis over 4 year project (to track project performance), we observed the amazing surprises like 11% profit in T1, 47% loss in T2, 26% profit in T3, and 4% profit in T4. Just now after receiving your reply, i went straight away to the manager accounts and he said no no %ages but we transfer all of the Cement, Diesel, Steel etc to the Fund Transfer ledger i-e transfer of actual expenses rather same %age as used for revenue recognition.Matching concept not being followed and as per your words this is wrong.However, do note that in your first reply of this conversation, you said to use actual profitability of projects.
Actual profitability is as fluctuating as discussed above.
and Matching concept (IAS-11) by default can,t help us to measure the project performance as;
1. In its work certified method, it takes actual revenue but COS is the balancing figure of Revenue less profit i-e hence it ignores actual spending on a project.
2. In its Cost Basis method, it takes actual COS (actual spending on a project) but ignores actual revenue (Approved IPCs) and takes revenue as a balancing figure of COS + Profit / (Loss).
Hence, by default IAS-11 deprives us to measure the true performance of a project over say 4 year period as Revenue and COS are two folds of the same thing. if one gets actual the second is a balancing figure & vice versa.
Dear respected, i have kept my head thinking as how to make a true profit & loss analysis of a project over a 4 year period ..??
Plus what treatment should i get followed in my company.
Thanks in advance.
Cordially,
Muhammad WaqasApril 25, 2015 at 1:47 pm #242655Your invoiced value as a percentage of contract value gives percentage complete.
Apply that percentage to TOTAL estimated costs and that will give a value of costs to recognise and ….
…. automatically you will recognise the appropriate value of profit
The revenue recognition is straight forward (ish) – it’s the value of either certified work or the value of invoiced work – that’s your choice (or, more correctly, the company’s choice) but less the revenue recognised in prior years relating to that contract
Cost recognition is tricky (ish) in that the double entry you should be putting through bears no relationship to the costs actually spent (which appears to be what you’re doing at the moment)
The double entry should be Dr Profit or Loss and Cr Expenses Account. As each successive year goes by, the figure in that entry will be calculated as cumulative percentage complete multiplied by TOTAL costs (both paid + estimated to complete) less expenses recognised in prior years for that contract
Is that better?
April 25, 2015 at 3:54 pm #242673Topic (Cost Recognition)
Lets have an example for what you want to say;
Year 1 Data:
Percentage completion 15%
Actaul Expenses (Spending) 500 Million
Total Estimated Project Cost 2800 Million
Cost to be recognized as per IAS 420 Million (15% of 2800 Million)Now the Double Entry should be;
Dr Profit & Loss A/C 420 Million
Cr Expenses A/C 420 MillionBalance on Expenses A/C = 500 Million – 420 Million = 80 Million Dr
Year 2 Data:
Percentage completion 28%
Actaul Expenses (Spending) 1080 Million
Total Estimated Project Cost 2800 Million
Cost to be recognized as per IAS (Cummulative) 784 Million (28% of 2800 Million)this year cost to be recognized = 784 Million – 420 Million = 364 Million
Now the Double Entry should be;
Dr Profit & Loss A/C 364 Million
Cr Expenses A/C 364 MillionBalance on Expenses A/C = 1080 Million – 420 Million – 364 Million = 296 Million Dr
Is that right you wana say ?? ok Fine.
Then it means their is no solution to measure how the project performs over years (comparative Profit & Loss Analysis) ?? Obviously, for this we need to incorporate the actual spendings not one calculated as per IAS.
As you can see above that in calculating first two years financials you ignored total of 296 Million expenses.
I think this is the same draw back in the IAS-11 as is IAS-19 where due to same expected return is taken for each project but Acturial losses could escape under the umbrella of corridor approach adopted for Acturial losses being OCI items.
Am i right ?? we have no fine solution for this ??
April 25, 2015 at 6:45 pm #242690No, they’re not ignored – they’re simply deferred until later years.
In addition, annual profitability is determined by comparing the figures you have calculated with respectively 15% and 13% of the contract value to give 1% of the overall anticipated profit and, in the second year, 13% of the overall anticipated profit
One thing to remember – if an overall loss is foreseen, expenses are written off to profit or loss to the extent that that calculated loss is recognised in full ie it’s not spread over the life of the contract
Ok?
April 25, 2015 at 7:12 pm #242701Yes sir i also mean the same. 296 Million of expenses are ignored now but shall be recognized ultimately i-e deferred now to be recognized later.
and yes the annual profitability is determined by comparing the figures you have calculated with respectively 15% and 13% of the contract value to give 15% of the overall anticipated profit in year 1 and, in the second year, 13% of the overall anticipated profit. this means that profit calculated on the basis of IAS are actually compared but you know very well that we cant, measure performance by having a comparison in this way. if the Project Managers and Consultants are driving unnecessary benefits from the company by both hands and plan that they resign before the completion of the project when actual project ROI is easy to calculate..they plan to drive the benefits by both hands and therefore we want to measure project performance by taking into consideration the actual spending on a project ..what should we do sir ????
April 25, 2015 at 7:26 pm #242703Driving benefits through kick backs etc.
sir can you please email your detailed notes on construction accounting ??
other than these shared on open tuition notes as i already have them. If yes, please email at finance.world60@outlook.com.
ThanksApril 25, 2015 at 8:16 pm #242712If you KNOW that your colleagues are manipulating figures, then the bosses need to be told – or maybe this is normal in your country.
Whatever, as a qualified accountant you need to distance yourself from such illegalities
Maybe some anonymous whistle blowing?
April 25, 2015 at 9:05 pm #242721Yes sir, this is really a good advice but i wanted a solid workings to be put forward before the directors like ROI / RI (Using Annuity Depreciation) calculated over the previous 3 to years rather than an anonymous mail because solid workings means a lot.
Anyways sir thank you so much for your kind support but i would be pleased if you email me any additional notes on construction accounting on my email id ; finance.world60@outlook.com.
or any kind of such link ??
Once again bundle of thanks.
April 25, 2015 at 9:27 pm #242723The only notes that I have are on the site in OT.
Try fitting your various projects facts to the workings in the course notes and see what you come up with. It will take you some time but it could well be worth it, particularly if you can excise the cancerous corruption that you face with the project managers and consultants
For your own sake, by careful!
April 25, 2015 at 9:46 pm #242727Thank you sir for this valuable advice and being so nice to us all.
I would definitely paste my various projects facts to the workings in OT course notes to view the projects results.
Bundle of Thanks !!April 25, 2015 at 10:21 pm #242731You’re welcome
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