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June 2014 Q3(c) Vogel Co and Tori Co

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › June 2014 Q3(c) Vogel Co and Tori Co

  • This topic has 7 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • April 3, 2015 at 7:23 am #239986
    HyeMoon
    Member
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    Dear Sir,

    Value of spinning off department B
    $m
    PBDIT (40% X 37.40) 14.96
    -) attirbutable to department C ( 10% X 14.96) (1.50)
    -) tax allowable depreciation (98.2 X 40% X 10%) (3.93)
    PBIT 9.53
    -) tax @ 20% (1.91)
    FCF 7.62

    a.Why the depreciation of $10.1m not included in the calculation?
    b.Why the tax allowable depreciation is not added back after tax?

    FCF $7.62m

    Present value of year 1 $7.62m X 120% X 0.909 = $8.31m
    Present value of year 2 onwards $9.14m X (1+5.2%)/(10%-5.2%) x 0.909= $ 182.11

    Why use $9.14m and not $8.31m instead?

    Thanks.

    April 4, 2015 at 6:45 am #240078
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54699
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Question1:

    It is because note (vi) of the question says that it is to be assumed that the amount needed to maintain operations is the same as the tax allowable depreciation. (So although you would add back the depreciation you would then subtract the amount needed to maintain operations – so the net effect is to do nothing 🙂 )

    Your second question:

    You could use 8.31 instead, but then you would not need to multiply by 0.909 again in arriving at the present value of year 2 onwards. It would give exactly the same answer.

    April 7, 2015 at 2:03 am #240365
    HyeMoon
    Member
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    Dear Sir,

    Thanks for your clear explanation.

    April 7, 2015 at 2:32 pm #240403
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54699
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

    December 6, 2016 at 8:03 pm #354725
    Ibrahim
    Member
    • Topics: 41
    • Replies: 79
    • ☆☆

    value of spinning off department B
    $m
    PBDIT (40% X 37.40) 14.96
    -) attirbutable to department C ( 10% X 14.96) =(1.50)
    -) tax allowable depreciation (98.2 X 40% X 10%) =(3.93)
    PBIT 9.53
    -) tax @ 20% =(1.91)
    FCF 7.62

    my question is why TAD was deducted before calculating tax. i thought it should be deducted after tax

    December 7, 2016 at 6:44 am #354853
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54699
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Tax allowable depreciation is always allowable for tax.

    You either subtract the TAD, then calculate the tax, then add back the TAD because it is not a cash flow.
    Or, alternatively, you calculate the tax on the profit before TAD and then calculate separately the tax saving on the TAD’s.

    I do explain the two alternatives in my free lectures (and in the F9 lectures as well because it is revision of F9)

    December 7, 2017 at 12:50 pm #421510
    Muhammad Adil
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    Hello, Sir,

    My question is why not subtract the interest of 7% unsecured bond to calculate FCFE, Like according to the formula ,FCFE=FCFF-Intrest(1-t)+net borrowing. The examiner answers say FCF , than he uses growth model to calculate value for company and subtracts debt to calculate FCFE.

    Thank-you

    December 7, 2017 at 3:59 pm #421614
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54699
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    No – the examiner has not used FCFE.

    He has discounted the free cash flows discounted at the WACC in order to calculate the total value of the business. Then he has subtracted the value of the debt in order to get the value of the equity.

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • The topic ‘June 2014 Q3(c) Vogel Co and Tori Co’ is closed to new replies.

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