• Skip to primary navigation
  • Skip to main content
  • Skip to primary sidebar
Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free Notes, Lectures, Tests and Forums for ACCA and CIMA exams

  • ACCA
  • CIMA
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Books
  • Forums
  • Ask AI
  • Search
  • Register
  • Login
  • ACCA Forums
  • Ask ACCA Tutor
  • FIA Forums
  • CIMA Forums
  • OBU Forums
  • Qualified Members forum
  • Buy/Sell Books
  • All Forums
  • Latest Topics

March 2026 ACCA Exams

Comments & Instant poll

20% off ACCA & CIMA Books

OpenTuition recommends the new interactive BPP books for June 2026 exams.
Get your discount code >>

Q1 part b June 2014 CMC Co

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Q1 part b June 2014 CMC Co

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • November 30, 2014 at 8:28 pm #214890
    aynsky
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    The answer says that: CMC Co has a comparative advantage in borrowing at fixed rate and counter party has a comparative advantage in borrowing at the floating rate.

    What I don’t get is how xan counter party has advantage in floating rate when it has Yield rate + 0.8% floating rate abd CMC has Yield rate + 0.4% .
    Wouldn’t CMC co be in advantage in both?

    November 30, 2014 at 8:48 pm #214896
    aynsky
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    Also how did 3.2% comes as the net result of the counterparty ?

    December 1, 2014 at 8:46 am #214988
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54829
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    By comparative advantage it is talking about the difference between the two fixed rates as compared with the difference between the two floating rates.

    I think a more obvious way of seeing what is happening is that if CMC were to borrow floating and counterparty fixed, then in total they would be paying (Y + 0.4%) + 3.8% = Y + 4.2%
    On the other hand, if CMC borrowed fixed and counterparty floating, then in total they would be paying 2.2% + (Y + 0.8%) = Y + 3%

    So if they did the second option, and swapped, then in total they could save 1.2%. They would both have to pay bank charges of 0.2%, but this would still leave a saving of 0.8% which they could share between them (0.4% each).

    The end result would be that instead of CMC having to pay Y + 0.4%, the will only end up paying Y + 0.4% – 0.4% = Y; and instead of counterparty having to pay 3.8%, they will only end up paying 3.8% – 0.4% = 3.4%
    They both save 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Log In

Primary Sidebar

Kaplan ACCA Free Trial

Donate
If you have benefited from our materials, please donate

ACCA News:

ACCA My Exam Performance for non-variant

Applied Skills exams is available NOW

ACCA Options:  “Read the Mind of the Marker” articles

Subscribe to ACCA’s Student Accountant Direct

ACCA CBE Exams – Instant Poll

How was your exam, and what was the exam result?

BT CBE exam was.. | MA CBE exam was..
FA CBE exam was.. | LW CBE exam was..

Donate

If you have benefited from OpenTuition please donate.

PQ Magazine

Latest Comments

  • John Moffat on Foreign exchange risk management (1) Part 1 – ACCA (AFM) lectures
  • loserian on Foreign exchange risk management (1) Part 1 – ACCA (AFM) lectures
  • Sakura0817 on ACCA BT Chapter 4 – Organisational culture – Questions
  • DolapoO.J on Relevant Cash Flows for DCF Relevant Costs (example 1) – ACCA Financial Management (FM)
  • John Moffat on Financial management objectives – ACCA Financial Management (FM)

Copyright © 2026 · Support · Contact · Advertising · OpenLicense · About · Sitemap · Comments · Log in